TOTAL QUESTIONS-116
ANSWERS GIVEN AFTER END OF THE QUESTIONS
1. Which
technique enhances blood vessel visibility using X-ray technology?
A)
Fluoroscopy
B)
Mammography
C)
Angiography
D)
Tomography
2. Dual-energy
X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is primarily used to measure:
A)
Muscle mass
B)
Bone density
C)
Soft tissue density
D)
Organ size
3.A
common indication for fluoroscopy is:
A)
Diagnosing fractures
B)
Monitoring organ function in real time
C)
Imaging soft tissues
D)
Measuring bone mineral density
4. Portable
X-ray machines are frequently used in:
A)
Intensive care units
B)
Emergency rooms
C)
Neonatal wards
D)
All of the above
5. Which
X-ray technique uses rotating anodes for better imaging?
A)
Mammography
B)
Fluoroscopy
C)
CT scans
D)
Angiography
6. Which
technique uses contrast media to enhance soft tissue visualization?
A)
MRI
B)
Ultrasound
C)
Angiography
D)
CT scan
7. In
intravenous urography (IVU), contrast is injected to visualize:
A)
Liver function
B)
Kidney and urinary tract
C)
Heart ventricles
D)
Lung bronchi
8. A
special X-ray for visualizing bile ducts is called:
A)
Hysterosalpingography
B)
Cholangiography
C)
Urethrography
D)
Arthrography
9. Mammography
is primarily used for imaging:
A)
Lungs
B)
Breasts
C)
Bones
D)
Abdomen
10. What
is the purpose of a barium swallow test?
A)
Imaging the small intestine
B)
Assessing lung function
C)
Examining the esophagus
D)
Visualizing the bladder
11. The
primary purpose of using contrast in X-ray imaging is to:
A)
Reduce radiation exposure
B)
Enhance visibility of structures
C)
Increase image resolution
D)
Shorten imaging time
12. Which
imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves instead of radiation?
A)
X-ray
B)
MRI
C)
Ultrasound
D)
CT scan
13. Which
type of contrast is most commonly used for gastrointestinal imaging?
A)
Iodine-based
B)
Barium sulfate
C)
Gadolinium
D)
Carbon dioxide
14. Hysterosalpingography
is primarily used to evaluate:
A)
Bone density
B)
Uterine and fallopian tube anatomy
C)
Lung capacity
D)
Heart structure
15. What
is the main advantage of using digital mammography over traditional film
mammography?
A)
Lower radiation dose
B)
Better image quality
C)
Faster processing time
D)
All of the above
16. In
which situation would a pediatric patient typically receive a fluoroscopic
study?
A)
Assessment of bone fractures
B)
Evaluation of congenital heart defects
C)
Examination of gastrointestinal issues
D)
All of the above
17. The
term "contrast enhancement" in radiology refers to:
A)
The increase in image sharpness
B)
The improved differentiation of structures
C)
The use of higher radiation levels
D)
The use of multiple imaging modalities
18. What
type of X-ray is specifically designed to visualize soft tissue structures?
A)
Radiograph
B)
Computed tomography
C)
Digital radiography
D)
Magnetic resonance imaging
19. Which
condition is often assessed using a barium enema?
A)
Appendicitis
B)
Inflammatory bowel disease
C)
Kidney stones
D)
Liver cirrhosis
20. What
is the primary use of a Sialography?
A)
Visualizing salivary glands
B)
Imaging thyroid disorders
C)
Examining jaw fractures
D)
Assessing lung function
21. X-rays
are primarily used to visualize:
A)
Soft tissues
B)
Bones
C)
Nerves
D)
Blood flow
22. The
anode in an X-ray tube is commonly made of:
A)
Aluminum
B)
Steel
C)
Tungsten
D)
Copper
23. Which
type of radiation is used in X-ray imaging?
A)
Alpha radiation
B)
Gamma radiation
C)
Beta radiation
D)
Electromagnetic
24. X-ray
imaging is commonly used in which of the following procedures?
A)
Bronchoscopy
B)
Echocardiogram
C)
Mammography
D)
Ultrasound
25. The
main purpose of using lead aprons during X-ray procedures is to:
A)
Improve image quality
B)
Protect against radiation exposure
C)
Stabilize the patient
D)
Ensure proper positioning
26. The
process of converting X-ray images to digital format is called:
A)
Digitization
B)
Scanning
C)
Processing
D)
Radiography
27. A
common artifact seen in X-ray images is:
A)
Motion blur
B)
Film fogging
C)
Grid lines
D)
All of the above
28. Which
of the following is NOT a typical indication for chest X-rays?
A)
Pneumonia
B)
Rib fracture
C)
Kidney stones
D)
Tuberculosis
29. Which
component of the X-ray machine generates the X-rays?
A)
Cathode
B)
Anode
C)
Detector
D)
Filtration system
30. The
"exposure time" in X-ray imaging refers to:
A)
Duration the X-ray beam is on
B)
Time taken to process the film
C)
The total radiation dose
D)
Time between exposures
31. What
is the primary advantage of using digital radiography over film-based systems?
A)
Higher cost
B)
Longer exposure times
C)
Immediate image availability
D)
Increased radiation dose
32. Which
type of view is best for assessing the lumbar spine?
A)
Lateral view
B)
Anterior-posterior view
C)
Oblique view
D)
Both A and B
33. The
primary radiation source in an X-ray machine is the:
A)
Collimator
B)
Tube head
C)
Lead shield
D)
Image receptor
34. A
lateral chest X-ray is typically performed to evaluate:
A)
Lung volume
B)
Heart size and position
C)
Rib injuries
D)
All of the above
35.What
is the typical positioning for a PA chest X-ray?
A)
Standing with arms overhead
B)
Lying supine
C)
Sitting with arms at sides
D)
Standing with hands on hips
36.Which
factor does NOT affect the quality of an X-ray image?
A)
Exposure time
B)
Patient age
C)
Kilovoltage (kV)
D)
Film processing time
37.In
radiology, the term “overexposure” refers to:
A)
Insufficient radiation dose
B)
Excessive radiation dose
C)
Incorrect patient positioning
D)
Poor film processing
38.A
common indication for a hand X-ray is:
A)
Arthritis assessment
B)
Respiratory issues
C)
Digestive problems
D)
Cardiovascular evaluation
39.The
purpose of the collimator in an X-ray machine is to:
A)
Increase radiation dose
B)
Focus the X-ray beam
C)
Minimize patient movement
D)
Enhance image contrast
40. The
primary risk associated with repeated X-ray exposure is:
A)
Image quality deterioration
B)
Increased likelihood of radiation burns
C)
Cumulative radiation dose effects
D)
Decreased imaging speed
41. The
term “radiopacity” refers to the ability of a substance to:
A)
Absorb X-rays
B)
Emit radiation
C)
Reflect X-rays
D)
Conduct electricity
42. Which
type of radiographic examination is used to evaluate the gastrointestinal
tract?
A)
Computed tomography
B)
Fluoroscopy
C)
Mammography
D)
None of the above
43.The
image produced by X-ray is primarily based on:
A)
Bone density
B)
Soft tissue composition
C)
Radiation absorption
D)
All of the above
44. Which
of the following is a benefit of using low-dose X-ray technology?
A)
Increased image resolution
B)
Reduced patient radiation exposure
C)
Shorter imaging time
D)
Higher contrast images
45. In
CT imaging, “windowing” is used to adjust:
A)
Image brightness and contrast
B)
Radiation dosage
C)
Image resolution
D)
Gantry speed
46. The
Hounsfield unit (HU) for air in a CT scan is approximately:
A)
-1000 HU
B)
0 HU
C)
+1000 HU
D)
+500 HU
47. CT
scanning is most useful for detecting:
A)
Brain hemorrhages
B)
Heart murmurs
C)
Pulmonary function
D)
Eye disorders
48. The
radiation dose in CT is measured in:
A)
Watts
B)
Gray
C)
Becquerel
D)
Curie
49. Which
contrast agent is most commonly used in CT scans?
A)
Barium sulfate
B)
Gadolinium
C)
Iodine-based agents
D)
Carbon dioxide
50. The
term "spiral CT" refers to:
A)
Continuous rotation of the X-ray tube
B)
A type of image processing
C)
A specific radiation dose
D)
The shape of the CT scanner
51. Which
of the following is NOT a common use of CT scans?
A)
Detecting tumors
B)
Evaluating fractures
C)
Imaging soft tissue
D)
Assessing blood flow in real time
52. The
optimal reconstruction algorithm for a CT scan is chosen based on:
A)
Patient age
B)
Body part being imaged
C)
Radiation exposure levels
D)
All of the above
53. Which
plane is NOT typically used for CT imaging?
A)
Coronal
B)
Sagittal
C)
Transverse
D)
Oblique
54. In
CT imaging, what does the term "multislice" refer to?
A)
Multiple images taken at once
B)
The number of X-ray tubes used
C)
The thickness of each slice
D)
Image post-processing techniques
55. CT
scans can provide imaging in:
A)
Axial planes only
B)
Two-dimensional planes only
C)
Three-dimensional reconstructions
D)
None of the above
56. The
“gantry” in a CT scanner is responsible for:
A)
Containing the patient
B)
Controlling the X-ray source and detectors
C)
Processing the images
D)
Adjusting the radiation dose
57. Which
of the following parameters is most important for reducing CT scan artifacts?
A)
Patient positioning
B)
Exposure time
C)
Slice thickness
D)
Radiation dose
58. A
key risk associated with CT scans is:
A)
Allergic reactions to contrast media
B)
Increased radiation exposure
C)
Motion artifacts
D)
Both A and B
59. In
CT imaging, the term "image reconstruction" refers to:
A)
The process of creating images from raw data
B)
Correcting patient positioning errors
C)
Adjusting exposure parameters
D)
Analyzing images for diagnostic purposes
60. What
is the purpose of using a scout view in CT scanning?
A)
To determine the optimal scan range
B)
To enhance image quality
C)
To reduce radiation dose
D)
To visualize soft tissues
61. Which
CT technique is commonly used to assess pulmonary embolism?
A)
Chest X-ray
B)
CT pulmonary angiography
C)
MRI of the chest
D)
Fluoroscopy
62. The
CT number for water is standardized to:
A)
+100
B)
0
C)
-100
D)
+500
63. A
CT scan can be used to evaluate which of the following conditions?
A)
Appendicitis
B)
Osteoporosis
C)
Skin lesions
D)
All of the above
64. In
a CT scan, the term “field of view” refers to:
A)
The area visible on the image
B)
The depth of the scan
C)
The size of the radiation beam
D)
The number of images taken
65. Which
imaging technique is used for soft tissue contrast in CT scans?
A)
Contrast-enhanced CT
B)
Non-contrast CT
C)
MRI
D)
Both A and C
66. What
does "reconstruction algorithms" in CT refer to?
A)
Methods for enhancing image clarity
B)
Techniques for optimizing radiation dose
C)
Software used to process images from raw data
D)
All of the above
67. A
CT angiogram primarily assesses:
A)
Heart function
B)
Blood vessel abnormalities
C)
Bone structure
D)
Tissue inflammation
68. Which
of the following best describes the term "artifact" in CT imaging?
A)
Unwanted visual elements in the image
B)
The main area of interest in the scan
C)
The original source of the X-ray
D)
A diagnostic feature
69. MRI
sequences are identified by:
A)
Magnetic strength
B)
Tissue contrast patterns
C)
Slice thickness
D)
Image acquisition speed
70. In
MRI, “T2-weighted” images visualize:
A)
Fluid-filled structures
B)
Bone
C)
Soft tissue with fat
D)
Air-filled cavities
71. Functional
MRI (fMRI) primarily examines:
A)
Brain activity
B)
Bone density
C)
Organ size
D)
Nerve damage
72. MRI
is contraindicated in patients with:
A)
Claustrophobia
B)
Cardiac pacemakers
C)
Skin conditions
D)
Obesity
73 The
primary component of an MRI machine that generates the magnetic field is:
A)
Radiofrequency coils
B)
Gradient coils
C)
Superconducting magnets
D)
X-ray tubes
74. T1-weighted
images in MRI are useful for visualizing:
A)
Fluid-filled structures
B)
Fat and anatomy
C)
Edema
D)
Blood flow
75. The
role of gradient coils in an MRI system is to:
A)
Create the primary magnetic field
B)
Apply varying magnetic fields for spatial encoding
C)
Generate radiofrequency pulses
D)
Detect emitted signals
76. The
safety concern regarding MRI for patients with pacemakers is due to:
A)
Thermal burns
B)
Magnetic interference
C)
Radiation exposure
D)
Contrast reactions
77. What
does the term "echo time (TE)" refer to in MRI?
A)
The time between radiofrequency pulse and signal acquisition
B)
The duration of the magnetic field application
C)
The time for patient positioning
D)
The duration of the imaging process
78. Which
contrast agent is commonly used in MRI to enhance visibility of certain
tissues?
A)
Barium
B)
Iodine
C)
Gadolinium
D)
Carbon dioxide
79. The
“slice thickness” in MRI refers to:
A)
The width of the imaging area
B)
The amount of contrast used
C)
The thickness of the tissue being imaged
D)
The dimension of each individual image section
80. Functional
MRI (fMRI) is primarily used to assess:
A)
Structural abnormalities
B)
Brain activity
C)
Soft tissue tumors
D)
Bone density
81. Which
of the following is a common indication for performing an MRI?
A)
Ligament tears
B)
Gastrointestinal bleeding
C)
Fractures
D)
Pulmonary nodules
82. What
is the primary advantage of MRI over CT for soft tissue imaging?
A)
Higher resolution images
B)
No radiation exposure
C)
Faster imaging times
D)
Both A and B
83. Which
type of MRI sequence is best for imaging cartilage?
A)
T1-weighted
B)
T2-weighted
C)
Proton density
D)
Diffusion-weighted
84. The
term “B0” in MRI refers to:
A)
The strength of the magnetic field
B)
The echo time
C)
The imaging frequency
D)
The gradient strength
85. A
major contraindication for MRI is:
A)
Previous surgeries
B)
Claustrophobia
C)
Presence of metallic implants
D)
Allergies to contrast media
86. The
main purpose of using a surface coil in MRI is to:
A)
Enhance the magnetic field strength
B)
Improve signal-to-noise ratio for specific areas
C)
Increase patient comfort
D)
Reduce imaging time
87. What
is the significance of “fat saturation” in MRI?
A)
To improve bone imaging
B)
To suppress the signal from fat tissues
C)
To enhance contrast of fluid-filled structures
D)
To provide a clearer background
88. In
MRI, the time it takes for the signal to return to baseline after excitation is
known as:
A)
Repetition time (TR)
B)
Echo time (TE)
C)
Relaxation time
D)
Acquisition time
89. What
is the primary function of a radiofrequency (RF) coil in an MRI machine?
A)
To create the magnetic field
B)
To send and receive radio waves
C)
To control the imaging sequence
D)
To monitor patient vitals
90. Which
imaging technique is best suited for evaluating brain tumors?
A)
CT scan
B)
Ultrasound
C)
MRI
D)
X-ray
91. In
MRI imaging, the term "spin echo" refers to:
A)
A method for creating an image
B)
A type of contrast agent
C)
The alignment of hydrogen atoms
D)
The time interval between pulse sequences
92. The
main limitation of MRI is:
A)
Cost of equipment
B)
Length of scan time
C)
Patient discomfort due to confined spaces
D)
All of the above
93. The
term “PACS” in radiology refers to:
A)
Patient Acute Care System
B)
Picture Archiving and Communication System
C)
Patient Assistance Control System
D)
Preoperative Axial Computed System
94. A
“DICOM” file format is standard in:
A)
Ultrasound imaging
B)
Radiology imaging systems
C)
Pharmacy records
D)
Surgical reports
95. The
key benefit of digital radiography is:
A)
Reduced radiation exposure
B)
Faster image processing
C)
Improved image resolution
D)
All of the above
96. Which
imaging system uses radiopharmaceuticals?
A)
PET scan
B)
CT scan
C)
Ultrasound
D)
Fluoroscopy
97. Which
imaging modality uses ionizing radiation to create images?
A)
MRI
B)
Ultrasound
C)
CT scan
D)
All of the above
98. The
primary function of a PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System) is to:
A)
Improve patient comfort
B)
Store and manage medical images
C)
Reduce radiation exposure
D)
Enhance image quality
99. The
term "DICOM" in radiology stands for:
A)
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
B)
Data Imaging and Communication in Medicine
C)
Diagnostic Imaging and Clinical Operations in Medicine
D)
Digital Imaging and Clinical Outcomes in Medicine
100. Which
imaging modality is primarily used for soft tissue evaluation?
A)
X-ray
B)
MRI
C)
CT scan
D)
Both B and C
101. The
main purpose of using a contrast agent in imaging is to:
A)
Decrease imaging time
B)
Enhance visibility of certain structures
C)
Reduce patient movement
D)
Increase radiation dose
102. Which
imaging system is most effective for evaluating bone density?
A)
MRI
B)
X-ray
C)
CT scan
D)
Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
103. The
key advantage of digital radiography over film-based systems is:
A)
Lower cost
B)
Immediate image retrieval and processing
C)
Higher radiation exposure
D)
Decreased patient throughput
104. In
ultrasound imaging, the transducer is responsible for:
A)
Emitting sound waves and detecting echoes
B)
Generating X-rays
C)
Creating magnetic fields
D)
Storing image data
105. The
term "exposure" in radiology refers to:
A)
The time taken for imaging
B)
The amount of radiation received by the patient
C)
The clarity of the image produced
D)
The number of images taken
106. Which
imaging system is best for real-time imaging?
A)
MRI
B)
CT scan
C)
Ultrasound
D)
X-ray
107. The
role of a radiologist is to:
A)
Perform imaging procedures
B)
Interpret medical images and provide diagnoses
C)
Design imaging systems
D)
Monitor radiation exposure
108. Which
imaging modality uses sound waves to create images?
A)
X-ray
B)
CT scan
C)
MRI
D)
Ultrasound
109. The
primary benefit of using portable imaging systems is:
A)
Improved image quality
B)
Increased patient comfort
C)
Accessibility for bedridden patients
D)
Faster imaging times
110. In
terms of safety, which imaging system has the lowest radiation exposure?
A)
CT scan
B)
X-ray
C)
MRI
D)
Ultrasound
111. What
is the main limitation of conventional film-based radiography?
A)
High cost
B)
Poor image quality
C)
Lengthy processing time
D)
Increased radiation dose
112. Which
of the following is true about fluoroscopy?
A)
It provides static images only
B)
It uses continuous X-ray exposure for real-time imaging
C)
It cannot visualize soft tissues
D)
It is a type of MRI
113. The
advantage of using 3D imaging techniques is:
A)
Better visualization of complex structures
B)
Reduced scan time
C)
Increased radiation dose
D)
Simplified image interpretation
114. Which
component is essential for ensuring high-quality digital images in radiology?
A)
High-resolution detectors
B)
Manual film processing
C)
Analog imaging systems
D)
Lower radiation doses
115. In
imaging systems, the term “sensitivity” refers to:
A)
The ability to detect small amounts of radiation
B)
The capability to visualize small lesions
C)
The amount of contrast needed
D)
The response of detectors to radiation
116. What
is the primary challenge in implementing new imaging technologies in radiology?
A)
Patient safety
B)
Cost and training requirements
C)
Regulatory approvals
D) All of the above
0 Comments