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SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR RADIATION TECHNOLOGIST EXAM (SET-2)

TOTAL QUESTIONS-116

ANSWERS GIVEN AFTER END OF THE QUESTIONS





1. Which technique enhances blood vessel visibility using X-ray technology?

A) Fluoroscopy

B) Mammography

C) Angiography

D) Tomography

 

2. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is primarily used to measure:

A) Muscle mass

B) Bone density

C) Soft tissue density

D) Organ size

 

3.A common indication for fluoroscopy is:

A) Diagnosing fractures

B) Monitoring organ function in real time

C) Imaging soft tissues

D) Measuring bone mineral density

 

4. Portable X-ray machines are frequently used in:

A) Intensive care units

B) Emergency rooms

C) Neonatal wards

D) All of the above

 

5. Which X-ray technique uses rotating anodes for better imaging?

A) Mammography

B) Fluoroscopy

C) CT scans

D) Angiography

 

6. Which technique uses contrast media to enhance soft tissue visualization?

A) MRI

B) Ultrasound

C) Angiography

D) CT scan

 

7. In intravenous urography (IVU), contrast is injected to visualize:

A) Liver function

B) Kidney and urinary tract

C) Heart ventricles

D) Lung bronchi

 

8. A special X-ray for visualizing bile ducts is called:

A) Hysterosalpingography

B) Cholangiography

C) Urethrography

D) Arthrography

 

9. Mammography is primarily used for imaging:

A) Lungs

B) Breasts

C) Bones

D) Abdomen

 

10. What is the purpose of a barium swallow test?

A) Imaging the small intestine

B) Assessing lung function

C) Examining the esophagus

D) Visualizing the bladder

11. The primary purpose of using contrast in X-ray imaging is to:

A) Reduce radiation exposure

B) Enhance visibility of structures

C) Increase image resolution

D) Shorten imaging time

 

12. Which imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves instead of radiation?

A) X-ray

B) MRI

C) Ultrasound

D) CT scan

 

13. Which type of contrast is most commonly used for gastrointestinal imaging?

A) Iodine-based

B) Barium sulfate

C) Gadolinium

D) Carbon dioxide

 

14. Hysterosalpingography is primarily used to evaluate:

A) Bone density

B) Uterine and fallopian tube anatomy

C) Lung capacity

D) Heart structure

 

15. What is the main advantage of using digital mammography over traditional film mammography?

A) Lower radiation dose

B) Better image quality

C) Faster processing time

D) All of the above

 

16. In which situation would a pediatric patient typically receive a fluoroscopic study?

A) Assessment of bone fractures

B) Evaluation of congenital heart defects

C) Examination of gastrointestinal issues

D) All of the above

 

17. The term "contrast enhancement" in radiology refers to:

A) The increase in image sharpness

B) The improved differentiation of structures

C) The use of higher radiation levels

D) The use of multiple imaging modalities

 

18. What type of X-ray is specifically designed to visualize soft tissue structures?

A) Radiograph

B) Computed tomography

C) Digital radiography

D) Magnetic resonance imaging

 

19. Which condition is often assessed using a barium enema?

A) Appendicitis

B) Inflammatory bowel disease

C) Kidney stones

D) Liver cirrhosis

 

20. What is the primary use of a Sialography?

A) Visualizing salivary glands

B) Imaging thyroid disorders

C) Examining jaw fractures

D) Assessing lung function

 

21. X-rays are primarily used to visualize:

A) Soft tissues

B) Bones

C) Nerves

D) Blood flow

 

22. The anode in an X-ray tube is commonly made of:

A) Aluminum

B) Steel

C) Tungsten

D) Copper

 

23. Which type of radiation is used in X-ray imaging?

A) Alpha radiation

B) Gamma radiation

C) Beta radiation

D) Electromagnetic

 

24. X-ray imaging is commonly used in which of the following procedures?

A) Bronchoscopy

B) Echocardiogram

C) Mammography

D) Ultrasound

 

25. The main purpose of using lead aprons during X-ray procedures is to:

A) Improve image quality

B) Protect against radiation exposure

C) Stabilize the patient

D) Ensure proper positioning

 

26. The process of converting X-ray images to digital format is called:

A) Digitization

B) Scanning

C) Processing

D) Radiography

 

27. A common artifact seen in X-ray images is:

A) Motion blur

B) Film fogging

C) Grid lines

D) All of the above

 

28. Which of the following is NOT a typical indication for chest X-rays?

A) Pneumonia

B) Rib fracture

C) Kidney stones

D) Tuberculosis

 

29. Which component of the X-ray machine generates the X-rays?

A) Cathode

B) Anode

C) Detector

D) Filtration system

 

30. The "exposure time" in X-ray imaging refers to:

A) Duration the X-ray beam is on

B) Time taken to process the film

C) The total radiation dose

D) Time between exposures

 

31. What is the primary advantage of using digital radiography over film-based systems?

A) Higher cost

B) Longer exposure times

C) Immediate image availability

D) Increased radiation dose

 

32. Which type of view is best for assessing the lumbar spine?

A) Lateral view

B) Anterior-posterior view

C) Oblique view

D) Both A and B

 

33. The primary radiation source in an X-ray machine is the:

A) Collimator

B) Tube head

C) Lead shield

D) Image receptor

 

34. A lateral chest X-ray is typically performed to evaluate:

A) Lung volume

B) Heart size and position

C) Rib injuries

D) All of the above

 

35.What is the typical positioning for a PA chest X-ray?

A) Standing with arms overhead

B) Lying supine

C) Sitting with arms at sides

D) Standing with hands on hips

 

36.Which factor does NOT affect the quality of an X-ray image?

A) Exposure time

B) Patient age

C) Kilovoltage (kV)

D) Film processing time

 

37.In radiology, the term “overexposure” refers to:

A) Insufficient radiation dose

B) Excessive radiation dose

C) Incorrect patient positioning

D) Poor film processing

 


38.A common indication for a hand X-ray is:

A) Arthritis assessment

B) Respiratory issues

C) Digestive problems

D) Cardiovascular evaluation

 

39.The purpose of the collimator in an X-ray machine is to:

A) Increase radiation dose

B) Focus the X-ray beam

C) Minimize patient movement

D) Enhance image contrast

 

40. The primary risk associated with repeated X-ray exposure is:

A) Image quality deterioration

B) Increased likelihood of radiation burns

C) Cumulative radiation dose effects

D) Decreased imaging speed

 

41. The term “radiopacity” refers to the ability of a substance to:

A) Absorb X-rays

B) Emit radiation

C) Reflect X-rays

D) Conduct electricity

 

42. Which type of radiographic examination is used to evaluate the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Computed tomography

B) Fluoroscopy

C) Mammography

D) None of the above

 

43.The image produced by X-ray is primarily based on:

A) Bone density

B) Soft tissue composition

C) Radiation absorption

D) All of the above

 

44. Which of the following is a benefit of using low-dose X-ray technology?

A) Increased image resolution

B) Reduced patient radiation exposure

C) Shorter imaging time

D) Higher contrast images

 

45. In CT imaging, “windowing” is used to adjust:

A) Image brightness and contrast

B) Radiation dosage

C) Image resolution

D) Gantry speed

 

46. The Hounsfield unit (HU) for air in a CT scan is approximately:

A) -1000 HU

B) 0 HU

C) +1000 HU

D) +500 HU

 

47. CT scanning is most useful for detecting:

A) Brain hemorrhages

B) Heart murmurs

C) Pulmonary function

D) Eye disorders

 

48. The radiation dose in CT is measured in:

A) Watts

B) Gray

C) Becquerel

D) Curie

 

49. Which contrast agent is most commonly used in CT scans?

A) Barium sulfate

B) Gadolinium

C) Iodine-based agents

D) Carbon dioxide

 

50. The term "spiral CT" refers to:

A) Continuous rotation of the X-ray tube

B) A type of image processing

C) A specific radiation dose

D) The shape of the CT scanner

 

51. Which of the following is NOT a common use of CT scans?

A) Detecting tumors

B) Evaluating fractures

C) Imaging soft tissue

D) Assessing blood flow in real time

52. The optimal reconstruction algorithm for a CT scan is chosen based on:

A) Patient age

B) Body part being imaged

C) Radiation exposure levels

D) All of the above

53. Which plane is NOT typically used for CT imaging?

A) Coronal

B) Sagittal

C) Transverse

D) Oblique

54. In CT imaging, what does the term "multislice" refer to?

A) Multiple images taken at once

B) The number of X-ray tubes used

C) The thickness of each slice

D) Image post-processing techniques

55. CT scans can provide imaging in:

A) Axial planes only

B) Two-dimensional planes only

C) Three-dimensional reconstructions

D) None of the above

56. The “gantry” in a CT scanner is responsible for:

A) Containing the patient

B) Controlling the X-ray source and detectors

C) Processing the images

D) Adjusting the radiation dose

57. Which of the following parameters is most important for reducing CT scan artifacts?

A) Patient positioning

B) Exposure time

C) Slice thickness

D) Radiation dose

58. A key risk associated with CT scans is:

A) Allergic reactions to contrast media

B) Increased radiation exposure

C) Motion artifacts

D) Both A and B

59. In CT imaging, the term "image reconstruction" refers to:

A) The process of creating images from raw data

B) Correcting patient positioning errors

C) Adjusting exposure parameters

D) Analyzing images for diagnostic purposes

60. What is the purpose of using a scout view in CT scanning?

A) To determine the optimal scan range

B) To enhance image quality

C) To reduce radiation dose

D) To visualize soft tissues

61. Which CT technique is commonly used to assess pulmonary embolism?

A) Chest X-ray

B) CT pulmonary angiography

C) MRI of the chest

D) Fluoroscopy

62. The CT number for water is standardized to:

A) +100

B) 0

C) -100

D) +500

63. A CT scan can be used to evaluate which of the following conditions?

A) Appendicitis

B) Osteoporosis

C) Skin lesions

D) All of the above

64. In a CT scan, the term “field of view” refers to:

A) The area visible on the image

B) The depth of the scan

C) The size of the radiation beam

D) The number of images taken

65. Which imaging technique is used for soft tissue contrast in CT scans?

A) Contrast-enhanced CT

B) Non-contrast CT

C) MRI

D) Both A and C

66. What does "reconstruction algorithms" in CT refer to?

A) Methods for enhancing image clarity

B) Techniques for optimizing radiation dose

C) Software used to process images from raw data

D) All of the above

67. A CT angiogram primarily assesses:

A) Heart function

B) Blood vessel abnormalities

C) Bone structure

D) Tissue inflammation

68. Which of the following best describes the term "artifact" in CT imaging?

A) Unwanted visual elements in the image

B) The main area of interest in the scan

C) The original source of the X-ray

D) A diagnostic feature

 

69. MRI sequences are identified by:

A) Magnetic strength

B) Tissue contrast patterns

C) Slice thickness

D) Image acquisition speed

70. In MRI, “T2-weighted” images visualize:

A) Fluid-filled structures

B) Bone

C) Soft tissue with fat

D) Air-filled cavities

71. Functional MRI (fMRI) primarily examines:

A) Brain activity

B) Bone density

C) Organ size

D) Nerve damage

72. MRI is contraindicated in patients with:

A) Claustrophobia

B) Cardiac pacemakers

C) Skin conditions

D) Obesity

73 The primary component of an MRI machine that generates the magnetic field is:

A) Radiofrequency coils

B) Gradient coils

C) Superconducting magnets

D) X-ray tubes

74. T1-weighted images in MRI are useful for visualizing:

A) Fluid-filled structures

B) Fat and anatomy

C) Edema

D) Blood flow

75. The role of gradient coils in an MRI system is to:

A) Create the primary magnetic field

B) Apply varying magnetic fields for spatial encoding

C) Generate radiofrequency pulses

D) Detect emitted signals

76. The safety concern regarding MRI for patients with pacemakers is due to:

A) Thermal burns

B) Magnetic interference

C) Radiation exposure

D) Contrast reactions

77. What does the term "echo time (TE)" refer to in MRI?

A) The time between radiofrequency pulse and signal acquisition

B) The duration of the magnetic field application

C) The time for patient positioning

D) The duration of the imaging process

78. Which contrast agent is commonly used in MRI to enhance visibility of certain tissues?

A) Barium

B) Iodine

C) Gadolinium

D) Carbon dioxide

79. The “slice thickness” in MRI refers to:

A) The width of the imaging area

B) The amount of contrast used

C) The thickness of the tissue being imaged

D) The dimension of each individual image section

80. Functional MRI (fMRI) is primarily used to assess:

A) Structural abnormalities

B) Brain activity

C) Soft tissue tumors

D) Bone density

81. Which of the following is a common indication for performing an MRI?

A) Ligament tears

B) Gastrointestinal bleeding

C) Fractures

D) Pulmonary nodules

82. What is the primary advantage of MRI over CT for soft tissue imaging?

A) Higher resolution images

B) No radiation exposure

C) Faster imaging times

D) Both A and B

83. Which type of MRI sequence is best for imaging cartilage?

A) T1-weighted

B) T2-weighted

C) Proton density

D) Diffusion-weighted

84. The term “B0” in MRI refers to:

A) The strength of the magnetic field

B) The echo time

C) The imaging frequency

D) The gradient strength

85. A major contraindication for MRI is:

A) Previous surgeries

B) Claustrophobia

C) Presence of metallic implants

D) Allergies to contrast media

86. The main purpose of using a surface coil in MRI is to:

A) Enhance the magnetic field strength

B) Improve signal-to-noise ratio for specific areas

C) Increase patient comfort

D) Reduce imaging time

87. What is the significance of “fat saturation” in MRI?

A) To improve bone imaging

B) To suppress the signal from fat tissues

C) To enhance contrast of fluid-filled structures

D) To provide a clearer background

88. In MRI, the time it takes for the signal to return to baseline after excitation is known as:

A) Repetition time (TR)

B) Echo time (TE)

C) Relaxation time

D) Acquisition time

89. What is the primary function of a radiofrequency (RF) coil in an MRI machine?

A) To create the magnetic field

B) To send and receive radio waves

C) To control the imaging sequence

D) To monitor patient vitals

90. Which imaging technique is best suited for evaluating brain tumors?

A) CT scan

B) Ultrasound

C) MRI

D) X-ray

91. In MRI imaging, the term "spin echo" refers to:

A) A method for creating an image

B) A type of contrast agent

C) The alignment of hydrogen atoms

D) The time interval between pulse sequences

92. The main limitation of MRI is:

A) Cost of equipment

B) Length of scan time

C) Patient discomfort due to confined spaces

D) All of the above

 

93. The term “PACS” in radiology refers to:

A) Patient Acute Care System

B) Picture Archiving and Communication System

C) Patient Assistance Control System

D) Preoperative Axial Computed System

94. A “DICOM” file format is standard in:

A) Ultrasound imaging

B) Radiology imaging systems

C) Pharmacy records

D) Surgical reports

95. The key benefit of digital radiography is:

A) Reduced radiation exposure

B) Faster image processing

C) Improved image resolution

D) All of the above

96. Which imaging system uses radiopharmaceuticals?

A) PET scan

B) CT scan

C) Ultrasound

D) Fluoroscopy

97. Which imaging modality uses ionizing radiation to create images?

A) MRI

B) Ultrasound

C) CT scan

D) All of the above

98. The primary function of a PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System) is to:

A) Improve patient comfort

B) Store and manage medical images

C) Reduce radiation exposure

D) Enhance image quality

99. The term "DICOM" in radiology stands for:

A) Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

B) Data Imaging and Communication in Medicine

C) Diagnostic Imaging and Clinical Operations in Medicine

D) Digital Imaging and Clinical Outcomes in Medicine

100. Which imaging modality is primarily used for soft tissue evaluation?

A) X-ray

B) MRI

C) CT scan

D) Both B and C

101. The main purpose of using a contrast agent in imaging is to:

A) Decrease imaging time

B) Enhance visibility of certain structures

C) Reduce patient movement

D) Increase radiation dose

102.  Which imaging system is most effective for evaluating bone density?

A) MRI

B) X-ray

C) CT scan

D) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)

103. The key advantage of digital radiography over film-based systems is:

A) Lower cost

B) Immediate image retrieval and processing

C) Higher radiation exposure

D) Decreased patient throughput

104. In ultrasound imaging, the transducer is responsible for:

A) Emitting sound waves and detecting echoes

B) Generating X-rays

C) Creating magnetic fields

D) Storing image data

105. The term "exposure" in radiology refers to:

A) The time taken for imaging

B) The amount of radiation received by the patient

C) The clarity of the image produced

D) The number of images taken

106. Which imaging system is best for real-time imaging?

A) MRI

B) CT scan

C) Ultrasound

D) X-ray

107. The role of a radiologist is to:

A) Perform imaging procedures

B) Interpret medical images and provide diagnoses

C) Design imaging systems

D) Monitor radiation exposure

108. Which imaging modality uses sound waves to create images?

A) X-ray

B) CT scan

C) MRI

D) Ultrasound

109. The primary benefit of using portable imaging systems is:

A) Improved image quality

B) Increased patient comfort

C) Accessibility for bedridden patients

D) Faster imaging times

110. In terms of safety, which imaging system has the lowest radiation exposure?

A) CT scan

B) X-ray

C) MRI

D) Ultrasound

111. What is the main limitation of conventional film-based radiography?

A) High cost

B) Poor image quality

C) Lengthy processing time

D) Increased radiation dose

112. Which of the following is true about fluoroscopy?

A) It provides static images only

B) It uses continuous X-ray exposure for real-time imaging

C) It cannot visualize soft tissues

D) It is a type of MRI

113. The advantage of using 3D imaging techniques is:

A) Better visualization of complex structures

B) Reduced scan time

C) Increased radiation dose

D) Simplified image interpretation

114. Which component is essential for ensuring high-quality digital images in radiology?

A) High-resolution detectors

B) Manual film processing

C) Analog imaging systems

D) Lower radiation doses

115. In imaging systems, the term “sensitivity” refers to:

A) The ability to detect small amounts of radiation

B) The capability to visualize small lesions

C) The amount of contrast needed

D) The response of detectors to radiation

116. What is the primary challenge in implementing new imaging technologies in radiology?

A) Patient safety

B) Cost and training requirements

C) Regulatory approvals

D) All of the above

ANSWERS



  1. C) Angiography
  2. B) Bone density
  3. B) Monitoring organ function in real time
  4. D) All of the above
  5. C) CT scans
  6. D) CT scan
  7. B) Kidney and urinary tract
  8. B) Cholangiography
  9. B) Breasts
  10. C) Examining the esophagus
  11. B) Enhance visibility of structures
  12. C) Ultrasound
  13. B) Barium sulfate
  14. B) Uterine and fallopian tube anatomy
  15. D) All of the above
  16. D) All of the above
  17. B) The improved differentiation of structures
  18. D) Magnetic resonance imaging
  19. B) Inflammatory bowel disease
  20. A) Visualizing salivary glands
  21. B) Bones
  22. C) Tungsten
  23. D) Electromagnetic
  24. C) Mammography
  25. B) Protect against radiation exposure
  26. A) Digitization
  27. D) All of the above
  28. C) Kidney stones
  29. A) Cathode
  30. A) Duration the X-ray beam is on
  31. C) Immediate image availability
  32. D) Both A and B
  33. B) Tube head
  34. D) All of the above
  35. A) Standing with arms overhead
  36. B) Patient age
  37. B) Excessive radiation dose
  38. A) Arthritis assessment
  39. B) Focus the X-ray beam
  40. C) Cumulative radiation dose effects
  41. A) Absorb X-rays
  42. B) Fluoroscopy
  43. D) All of the above
  44. B) Reduced patient radiation exposure
  45. A) Image brightness and contrast
  46. A) -1000 HU
  47. A) Brain hemorrhages
  48. B) Gray
  49. C) Iodine-based agents
  50. A) Continuous rotation of the X-ray tube
  51. D) Assessing blood flow in real time
  52. B) Body part being imaged
  53. D) Oblique
  54. A) Multiple images taken at once
  55. C) Three-dimensional reconstructions
  56. B) Controlling the X-ray source and detectors
  57. A) Patient positioning
  58. D) Both A and B
  59. A) The process of creating images from raw data
  60. A) To determine the optimal scan range
  61. B) CT pulmonary angiography
  62. B) 0
  63. D) All of the above
  64. A) The area visible on the image
  65. D) Both A and C
  66. C) Software used to process images from raw data
  67. B) Blood vessel abnormalities
  68. A) Unwanted visual elements in the image
  69. B) Tissue contrast patterns
  70. A) Fluid-filled structures
  71. A) Brain activity
  72. B) Cardiac pacemakers
  73. C) Superconducting magnets
  74. B) Fat and anatomy
  75. B) Apply varying magnetic fields for spatial encoding
  76. B) Magnetic interference
  77. A) The time between radiofrequency pulse and signal acquisition
  78. C) Gadolinium
  79. D) The dimension of each individual image section
  80. B) Brain activity
  81. A) Ligament tears
  82. D) Both A and B
  83. C) Proton density
  84. A) The strength of the magnetic field
  85. C) Presence of metallic implants
  86. B) Improve signal-to-noise ratio for specific areas
  87. B) To suppress the signal from fat tissues
  88. C) Relaxation time
  89. B) To send and receive radio waves
  90. C) MRI
  91. A) A method for creating an image
  92. D) All of the above
  93. B) Picture Archiving and Communication System
  94. B) Radiology imaging systems
  95. D) All of the above
  96. A) PET scan
  97. C) CT scan
  98. B) Store and manage medical images
  99. A) Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
  100. B) MRI
  101. B) Enhance visibility of certain structures
  102. D) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
  103. B) Immediate image retrieval and processing
  104. A) Emitting sound waves and detecting echoes
  105. B) The amount of radiation received by the patient
  106. C) Ultrasound
  107. B) Interpret medical images and provide diagnoses
  108. D) Ultrasound
  109. C) Accessibility for bedridden patients
  110. C) MRI
  111. C) Lengthy processing time
  112. B) It uses continuous X-ray exposure for real-time imaging
  113. A) Better visualization of complex structures
  114. A) High-resolution detectors
  115. D) The response of detectors to radiation
  116. D) All of the above

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